Surrey PCSC 1, on Feb 23 2004, 06:50 PM, said:
Sorry to annoy you all agian but I need some more help:
What does the statment below actually mean, what has the person actually done.
"Contary to Section 1 (1) and 4 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971."
Also is there only one Section 1 offence or do you get diffrent sections for diffrent acts. What I mean is if you are Given a section 4 for swearing is there a section 4 for lets say criminal damage.
Sorry this is a bit confusing any help is appriciated.

s.1(1) is "bog standard Criminal Damage:
A person who:
without lawful excuse destroys or damages any property belonging to another intending to destroy or damage any such property, or being reckless as to whether any such property would be be destroyed or damaged shall be guilty of any offence.
Basically they have damaged something which isn't theirs to damage in such a way as it would cost money to repare or rectify it and they did it deliberately or it resulted from actions which could objectively (obvious to you, me and any reasonable person) be thought to result in such a consequence (see R-v- Caldwell 1981).
There is a section 1 in all Acts of Parliament just about I would think, but they refer to different things depending on which Act it is.
Section 4(1) Public Order Act 1986 (Fear or Provocation of violence or threatening behaviour) is totally different to section 4 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971-don't know what it is about off the top of my head.
Yes your post is very confusing
am I helping at all???