Stamps as tender?
#1
Posted 13 November 2003 - 07:12 PM
Is that true?
#2
Posted 13 November 2003 - 07:50 PM
I know someone who was a bus driver who had to take them as fare if offered.
The Bank of England will also accept them as "cash"
Although they are legal tender nowhere has to actually accept them.
#3
Posted 13 November 2003 - 07:52 PM
chris_2003, on Nov 13 2003, 08:12 PM, said:
Is that true?
You've been watching "The Office" haven't you?
I think it was in the episode where they are all having some training, and David starts to play his gitar and sing.
ROFL
This post has been edited by Fulton: 13 November 2003 - 07:52 PM
#5
Posted 14 November 2003 - 12:23 AM
#6
Posted 14 November 2003 - 12:47 AM
General position when buying stuff is this:
1. The goods are on display, but they are not being offered for sale, they're offering you an invitation to make an offer for them.
2. You select your item(s) and go to the checkout. You then offer to buy the item(s) for the price displayed.
3. The person at the checkout accepts your offer by taking money off you.
Now, here's the thing: it could be said that by handing over a £50 or whatever, you were offering to pay £50 for the item(s). And the person at the checkout could accept that! But, as you can guess, you'd soon have no customers left!
#8
Posted 14 November 2003 - 09:03 AM
The banks always get confused when you handle a bundle of PO's into them, always forgetting to calculate the value of the stamps on the postal orders as they flick through them like notes.
I suppose technically, a shop could accept anything acceptable to them as payment, bartering?!?!?
There are quite a few Traders on ebay who will accept mint unfranked stamps as payment too (avoiding the tax issues maybe????) Basically as they are sending so much, it makes no odds to them if payment is in stamps as they use them quickly)
#9
Posted 15 November 2003 - 01:07 PM
"Legal Tender" basically means somthing which can be tendered for the settlement of a debt.
In England, Bank of England notes are "Legal Tender" and as such can not be refused as payment for a debt. Interestingly, Scottish and Ulster notes are not "Legal Tender" in England, and although widely accepted as sterling currencies, they can be refused. I'm not sure where postage stamps fit in with this scenario.
The government changed the law with effect from 1st January so that Euro notes can be legally accepted in payment - this means that an invoice can be issued in Euros, and can be recovered if unpaid using legal debt collection means, in England.
This does not mean that Euro's are "Legal Tender", but many shops will take them on request.
What a shop will take in payment has no bearing on whether or not somthing is legal tender or not. A shop keeper is under no obligation to sell, and is under no obligation to accept any particular currency - including Bank of England notes. This of course is his choice, but if he were to do so, he may find that he had no customers.
#10
Posted 15 November 2003 - 01:13 PM
#11
Posted 15 November 2003 - 06:18 PM
DarrenC, on Nov 15 2003, 02:07 PM, said:
Mmm, not quite true Darren. That's a common misconception. I can't really sum in up better than the Bank of England website, which says:
Quote
From here
#12
Posted 15 November 2003 - 06:28 PM
Legal Tender can not be refused to settle a debt.
A purchase from a shop is not a debt, therefore a shop keeper is not obliged to take one form of payment or another, including "legal tender".
What the question boils down to is... Can postage stamps be used to settle debts?
#13
Posted 15 November 2003 - 06:58 PM
The word debt is well over used in common parlance.
#14
Posted 17 November 2003 - 10:25 AM
#15
Posted 17 November 2003 - 11:13 AM
Richard
#16
Posted 17 November 2003 - 11:35 AM
i.e. if you turned up with £100 in 2p coins?
This post has been edited by Bert: 17 November 2003 - 11:35 AM
#17
Posted 17 November 2003 - 11:41 AM
#18
Posted 17 November 2003 - 12:04 PM
I also believe that to pay a bill, or fine such has been suggested would not be Legal Tender due to the rules regarding how much can be accepted in what denominations. Not that anyone pays their fines these days anyway.
#19
Posted 17 November 2003 - 03:06 PM
Bert, on Nov 17 2003, 11:35 AM, said:
i.e. if you turned up with £100 in 2p coins?
If I remember right, there was a case a few years back that involved someone trying to pay his child maintainance costs (as he was divorced) in loose change.
His argument that it was legal tender was shot down by the judge who reeled a list of how much he was actually allowed to hand over in each coin denomination, for it to be within the area (that the right word?) of legal tender.
I'll go and see if I can trawl it off of one of the news sites...
#20
Posted 17 November 2003 - 03:22 PM
DKeates, on Nov 14 2003, 12:47 AM, said:
1. The goods are on display, but they are not being offered for sale, they're offering you an invitation to make an offer for them.
Quote
Quote
I disagree. I think a better construction is that the offer is accepted and the contract made when the item is 'rung up' on the till. If I enter a shop and select a 10p item, take it to the till where it's rung up in the value of 10p and offer a £50 note in payment, it cannot sensibly be suggested that I intended to offer £50 to purchase the item and that the shopkeeper can accept that offer by taking the amount tendered and refusing to give change. Therefore, the acceptance of my offer to purchase must occur earlier. The only other event which could be construed as acceptance is ringing up the price of the item on the till. This is consistent with common sense and commercial practice. It allows the shopkeeper to discover a pricing error and avoid being held to a contract by mistake.
Quote
If, as stated above, acceptance has already occurred, then the contract is already made so tendering a banknote of a larger amount cannot be an offer (or even if it is, it is not capable of acceptance for want of consideration). However, the shopkeeper cannot be obliged to accept the higher value note and give change (for example if he doesn't have it). So what happens to the contract? A couple of possibilities (unsure which is correct): (i) completion delayed to allow purchaser to return with correct payment (but note that title to goods has passed); (ii) contract frustrated and void.
#21
Posted 17 November 2003 - 05:58 PM
David, on Nov 17 2003, 01:04 PM, said:
-Morning, just a friesian and a jersey to pay in today please.
-Thank you very much sir, will that be all?
#22
Posted 17 November 2003 - 06:23 PM
Hmm...
And what if the shop in question (perhaps a market stall or a street trader) doesn't have a cash-machine? What if it's broken? There are plenty of what-ifs. Are you suggesting that the act of acceptance is different in those cases? That would create an odd distinction in the law.
Anyway, this is :offtopic: so I'd suggest moving on and not debating the finer points of contract law here.
#23
Posted 17 November 2003 - 06:44 PM
To everyone: just a reminder that this is a police related site and as such we don't want (or need) to know the really fine points of law... secondly DKeates is an uncontested PoliceSpecials.com expert in most areas of Civil Law, but that doesn't make him your lawyer. So don't beat up on him or ask him to conveyance your house move for free.
And finally, here is a picture:

Some stamps, yesterday
Next!
#24
Posted 17 November 2003 - 08:08 PM
Just the ticket for winding up your local checkout operator.
#25
Posted 18 November 2003 - 06:35 AM

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